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Dec 14, 2010 at 0:15 comment added Shai Covo Also, my answer corresponds to the original question (see Robby McKilliam's comment above).
Nov 28, 2010 at 16:59 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 28, 2010 at 15:35 comment added Shai Covo My answer only concerns the question "for what types of $f$ is $\mu (f(x)) - f(\mu (x)) \geq m (f(x)) - f(m (x))$ for any (integrable) random variable $X$."
Nov 28, 2010 at 15:34 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 28, 2010 at 10:44 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 26, 2010 at 2:56 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 25, 2010 at 16:43 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 25, 2010 at 16:38 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 25, 2010 at 14:20 history edited Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 25, 2010 at 14:14 history answered Shai Covo CC BY-SA 2.5