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Jun 13 at 18:20 comment added Gro-Tsen For $n=1$, there are $\varphi(q)$ elements of $\mathbb{Z}/q\mathbb{Z}$ that are (each, separately) “linearly independent”, so to find a single vector you need $q-\varphi(q)+1$ vectors. This does not bode well for your question.
Jun 13 at 18:19 comment added Emil Jeřábek Generalizing your $(3,3)$ example, if $p$ is any prime divisor of $q$, then $p\mathbb Z_q^n$ is a set of $(q/p)^n$ vectors that does not contain a single linearly independent vector, according to your interpretation of the definition. Does that not answer the questin negatively?
Jun 13 at 17:54 history edited aleph CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 13 at 14:56 history asked aleph CC BY-SA 4.0