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Jun 13 at 11:59 comment added mathworker21 To see that $P(n,1) = \frac{1}{2}$, just note that the distribution is invariant to $P(x) \mapsto x^n P(x^{-1})$.
Jun 13 at 10:38 history asked Nilotpal Kanti Sinha CC BY-SA 4.0