Skip to main content
11 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Sep 19 at 8:13 history edited gmvh CC BY-SA 4.0
Removed remaining occurrences of \mathscr{S}
May 30 at 18:15 comment added MathMath @ChristianRemling Yes, I understand now. Many thanks for pointing that out!
May 30 at 17:27 comment added Christian Remling Yes, $-\Delta$ on $H^2$ is self-adjoint and we have the functional calculus available to define $f(-\Delta)$, but that's not what you did above, when you give $-\Delta$ the smaller domain $C^{\infty}$.
May 30 at 15:54 comment added MathMath @ChristianRemling I got confused. The Laplacian is supposed to be self-adjoint, no? Maybe I should be a bit more careful about the dense domain: I was using $C^{\infty}(\Omega)$ not as the domain of $-\Delta$, but I was restricting the attention to the latter to (try to) avoid complications. But, the domain of $-\Delta$ should be the Sobolev space $D(-\Delta) = H^{2}(\Omega)$ for instance. Since $f$ is bounded and continuous, I should be able to define $f(-\Delta)$. Am I doing something wrong?
May 30 at 15:23 comment added Christian Remling You actually can not use the usual functional calculus to define $f(-\Delta)$ since $-\Delta$ is not self-adjoint of $C^{\infty}$. You could do it by hand, by setting $f(-\Delta)\psi_p = f(\lambda_p)\psi_p$, with $-\Delta\psi_p=\lambda_p\psi_p$. Then, as you noted yourself at the end of your post, (1) with these vectors immediately implies that $A$ is the same operator.
May 30 at 14:06 comment added MathMath I edited the post!
May 30 at 14:06 history edited MathMath CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 15 characters in body
May 30 at 14:05 comment added MathMath @LSpice yes, just realized that. But I can replace it by $C^{\infty}(\Omega)$ instead and the question remains.
May 30 at 14:01 comment added LSpice What does "rapidly decreasing" mean for a function on a compact set?
May 30 at 12:26 history edited MathMath CC BY-SA 4.0
added 317 characters in body
May 30 at 7:26 history asked MathMath CC BY-SA 4.0