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May 28 at 21:52 answer added Keith Kearnes timeline score: 7
May 28 at 19:02 comment added Dominic van der Zypen @JoelDavidHamkins I also considered adding : $X$ is "+1-infinite" if there is a bijection between $X$ and $X\cup\{X\}$, so $X= X+1$ - but this is the same as Dedekind-infiniteness, I suppose
May 28 at 18:57 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
May 28 at 16:27 answer added Andreas Blass timeline score: 10
May 28 at 16:02 comment added Pedro Sánchez Terraf Have you checked the Wikipedia article on finiteness? There is a reference to Levy [1958] there.
May 28 at 13:55 comment added Joel David Hamkins For additively and multiplicatively, one might as well say there is a bijective map, since we have injections the other direction. So you are saying $X=X\cdot 2$ and $X^2=X$, respectively.
May 28 at 11:07 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 28 at 9:30 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0