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May 24 at 3:43 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 24 at 2:29 comment added Whatsumitzu @fedja I think that in $\mathbb R^4$ the vertices of the regular $24$-cell are the analogues of the hexagon in $\mathbb R^2$ (vertices are $(\pm1, \pm1,0,0)$ and their permutations). It's harder to check but I think that the same proof that works for the regular hexagon in $\mathbb R^2$ might work also for this polytope.
May 24 at 1:52 comment added fedja Correct. In 2D there are other examples too like $\ell^p$ norm in the first and the third quadrant and $\ell^q$ norm in the second and the third one ($\frac 1p+\frac 1q=1$), the hexagon corresponding to $p=1,q=\infty$. However I don't know anything like that in $\mathbb R^n$ for $n\ge 3$.
May 23 at 22:41 comment added Whatsumitzu @fedja I think that in 2D if I take the norm whose unit ball is a regular hexagon, then the property is valid
May 23 at 22:39 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 23 at 22:34 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 23 at 22:28 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21 at 23:39 comment added Whatsumitzu Ok my previous comment about perturbations looks fishy, but the following one is more robust: a norm coming from an inner product will satisfy the property, because the property is valid for the Euclidean norm, and it is invariant under changing the norm unit ball by (invertible) linear deformations. Currently I tend to conjecture that this covers all $C^2$-regular norms in $\mathbb R^2$ (so, if property holds in 2D and the norm is $C^2$, then the unit ball is an ellipse)
May 21 at 21:06 comment added Whatsumitzu @fedja I think that if Euclidean unit ball has as boundary a perfect sphere, then a small perturbation of this ball within the class of convex centrally symmetric bodies, will still have the desired norm-decreasing property from the question.. I did not try to prove it in detail though
May 21 at 15:52 comment added fedja I'm curious if you (or anyone) know an example of a non-Euclidean norm with this property in dimension 3 or higher.
May 21 at 15:16 comment added Whatsumitzu I want that at least one of them works, so in that case it would be accepted. But if you take a line of slope 1/2 you get a counterexample for $\ell_1$.. see edited post.
May 21 at 15:14 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21 at 15:11 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21 at 14:49 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor Math Jaxing
May 21 at 14:28 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21 at 14:09 history edited Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21 at 14:06 comment added Whatsumitzu taking v=0 shows that $||v^\star - x||\leq ||x||$, which is not what I asked, but I donkt know MikhailKatz' comment so this may be off track
May 21 at 14:02 comment added Whatsumitzu Sorry, this MikhailKatz must have removed their comment, what did the comment say?.. the max norm is not such norm, euclidean one is such norm, so what's a good property that separates the two?
May 21 at 12:36 comment added fedja @MikhailKatz In the Euclidean case, yes, but consider projecting $(1,1)$ to the line spanned by $(2,1)$ under the norm $\max(|x|,|y|)$ and you will see that the life is not as simple as you suggest.
May 21 at 6:45 review Close votes
May 25 at 18:03
May 21 at 5:02 history asked Whatsumitzu CC BY-SA 4.0