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Nov 23, 2010 at 16:16 comment added solbap hmm yeah it seems I've just reversed the orientation of $\mathbb{C}^n$. I guess I was just thinking that the identity map $(\mathbb{C}^n,i)→(\mathbb{R}^{2n},J)$ doesn't satisfy $i∘D(id)=D(id)∘J$,so this doesn′t give a holomorphic chart for $\mathbb{R}^{2n}$,but I guess $\overline{\mathbb{C}^n}$ does.
Nov 23, 2010 at 15:12 answer added Spiro Karigiannis timeline score: 10
Nov 23, 2010 at 15:01 comment added Spiro Karigiannis @solbap: Your example doesn't work. You just replaced the original J by its negative, which is still an integrable complex structure. Francesco and Eric gave the correct reason.
Nov 23, 2010 at 14:14 comment added solbap For an explicit example of $d \ne \partial + \bar \partial$ consider $\mathbb{C}^n$ as $\mathbb{R}^{2n}$ with coordinates $x_i, y_i$. The tan. sp. has basis $\partial/\partial x_i, \partial/\partial y_i$. The usual complex structure of $\mathbb{C}^n$ uses the almost complex structure $i(\partial/\partial x_i) = \partial/\partial y_i$ (this determines $i$ on the other basis vectors using $i^2 = -1$. If instead you used another complex structure $J(\partial/\partial x_i) = -\partial/\partial y_i$ and then proceeded to use $J$ to define $(p,q)$ forms then $d \ne \partial + \bar \partial$
Nov 23, 2010 at 13:44 vote accept miramo
Nov 23, 2010 at 13:40 vote accept miramo
Nov 23, 2010 at 13:44
Nov 23, 2010 at 13:28 comment added Francesco Polizzi In your computation of $d \omega$ you are assuming that $M$ is complex, since you are using holomorphic coordinates $z_i$. For a general almost complex manifold it makes no sense to write $\partial /\partial z$ and $\partial / \partial \bar{z}$, just because no holomorphic coordinates are available. There is just a complex structure on the tangent space, but to write $f(z)$ you need such a structure to be integrable.
Nov 23, 2010 at 13:27 answer added Eric Zaslow timeline score: 15
Nov 23, 2010 at 11:25 history asked miramo CC BY-SA 2.5