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May 9 at 4:32 comment added Nandakumar R Thanks for pointing out the central symmetry assumption made by Funk's theorem.
May 8 at 20:20 comment added Noam D. Elkies But Funk's theorem assumes that $C$ is centrally symmetric. The OP did not make this assumption; and the question about $C$ with more than one $P$ indicates that the OP really did want to allow bodies without central symmetry: a nonempty bounded set cannot have more than one central symmetry, because the composition of two distinct central symmetries $s_P, s_Q$ is translation by the nonzero vector $2(P-Q)$.
May 8 at 3:47 vote accept Nandakumar R
May 9 at 4:31
May 7 at 20:35 history answered Guillaume Aubrun CC BY-SA 4.0