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Let the set $A$ be finite and $\emptyset \notin A$. How can I, without using the axiom of choice, prove by mathematical induction that there exists a function $f : A \rightarrow \bigcup A$, i.e., satisfying$f(a) \in a$ for all $a \in A$?
Let the set $A$ be finite and $\emptyset \notin A$. How can I, without using the axiom of choice, prove by mathematical induction that there exists a function $f : A \rightarrow \bigcup A$, i.e.,$f(a) \in a$ for all $a \in A$?
Let the set $A$ be finite and $\emptyset \notin A$. How can I, without using the axiom of choice, prove by mathematical induction that there exists a function $f : A \rightarrow \bigcup A$ satisfying$f(a) \in a$ for all $a \in A$?
