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May 5 at 16:01 vote accept Đào Thanh Oai
May 5 at 12:44 answer added Bogdan Grechuk timeline score: 12
May 4 at 15:51 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 7
May 4 at 3:08 answer added Lucia timeline score: 9
S May 2 at 17:27 history suggested J. W. Tanner CC BY-SA 4.0
improved English
May 2 at 17:09 review Suggested edits
S May 2 at 17:27
May 2 at 10:31 comment added mathworker21 @GerryMyerson Well, someone could have disproved it...
May 2 at 9:47 comment added Đào Thanh Oai I thinks this conjecture is stronger than some old conjecture. Because $\ln x > 1, 2, 3, 4,.....$ when $x> e^{1}, e^{2}, e^{3}, e^{4}.....$ and with any positive interger $n$ then exist $x$ such that $(x-ln^2{x}, x+ln^2{x}) \subset (n^2, (n+1)^2)$
May 2 at 4:51 history edited GH from MO
edited tags
May 2 at 4:51 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 15
May 2 at 3:43 comment added Gerry Myerson Given that no one has come close to proving that there is even a single prime in an interval of length $2\log^2x$ around $x$, what is the point of asking whether there are always $\log x$ primes in such an interval?
May 2 at 3:24 history asked Đào Thanh Oai CC BY-SA 4.0