Timeline for Does complete and separable Wasserstein space imply a complete base space?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 23 at 1:25 | comment | added | Iosif Pinelis | @Kaira : Yes, the result holds for $p=\infty$ as well. I have added a remark on this. | |
| Oct 23 at 1:24 | history | edited | Iosif Pinelis | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 256 characters in body
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| Oct 23 at 1:12 | comment | added | Kaira | If we wanted to treat the $p=\infty$ case, I guess using Markov and using the monotonicity of $L^p$ norm to replace $L^1$ norm with $L^{\infty}$ works, right? | |
| Apr 29 at 18:34 | vote | accept | Kaira | ||
| Apr 29 at 17:51 | history | answered | Iosif Pinelis | CC BY-SA 4.0 |