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Jun 17 at 10:12 history closed Dave Benson
Daniele Tampieri
Andy Putman
Yemon Choi
Mikhail Katz
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Jun 15 at 14:27 review Close votes
Jun 17 at 10:12
S Jun 15 at 13:33 history bounty ended Jose Arnaldo Bebita
S Jun 15 at 13:33 history notice removed Jose Arnaldo Bebita
Jun 15 at 13:33 vote accept Jose Arnaldo Bebita
Jun 15 at 11:23 comment added Alex Ravsky Done. I am also happy to make my humble contribution to solve the odd perfect number problem. :-D
Jun 15 at 11:22 answer added Alex Ravsky timeline score: 0
Jun 15 at 11:12 comment added Jose Arnaldo Bebita Ohh, yes! But then that does not require proving that $m^2 - p^k \neq \square$! Ohh my goodness! If you could just write that out as an answer, I will be more than happy to accept it (and award the bounty to you), @AlexRavsky =)
Jun 15 at 8:43 comment added Alex Ravsky If $p^k<m^2$ always holds then $p^k<2(m-1)m$ and so we can put $a=m-1$, which provides an affirmative answer to your question, right?
Jun 15 at 8:34 comment added Jose Arnaldo Bebita Thank you for your comment, @AlexRavsky! I can see that your claimed inequality $p^k < 2(m - 1)m$ is equivalent to $m^2 - p^k > 0 > 2m - m^2$, which is always true. (We do know, however, that $p^k < m^2$ always holds. So does that take care of your concern about the failure of my "finishing arguments"?)
Jun 15 at 7:09 comment added Alex Ravsky I do not understand why you devoted so many efforts to show that $m^2-p^k$ is not a square. Indeed, if $m>2$ and $m^2-p^k\ge 0$ then $p^k<2(m-1)m$ and so we can put $a=m-1$. On the other hand, if $m^2-p^k<0$ then it cannot be between two squares, so your finishing arguments fail.
Jun 11 at 1:42 comment added Jose Arnaldo Bebita I appreciate your comment, @ToddTrimble!
Jun 10 at 18:52 comment added Todd Trimble I have trouble following the reasoning pretty much by the first display line. However, the answer to the question "Does the following statement necessarily hold? 'Since $m^2 - p^k$ is not a square, then it is between two (consecutive) squares.' " is yes, and the proof is very easy. Since the natural numbers are well-ordered, there is a least square $M^2$ greater than this $N := m^2 - p^k$. Then $(M-1)^2 \leq N$; otherwise, $M^2$ wouldn't have been the least square. $(M-1)^2 < N$ since $N$ is assumed not to be a square. So $(M-1)^2 < N < M^2$.
Jun 10 at 15:55 history edited Jose Arnaldo Bebita CC BY-SA 4.0
trimmed down the original question, deleted the request to check completeness of proof to conform to MO policy
Jun 10 at 15:54 comment added Andy Putman It's not a matter of how it is worded: as far as I can tell, this question is fundamentally a request for someone to either find the flaw in your proof or fill in some missing details, and no amount of rephrasing will make that on-topic.
Jun 10 at 15:40 comment added Jose Arnaldo Bebita @AndyPutman: In that case, please do allow me to edit my question, to conform to MO policy, so that it does not look like a "request to check completeness of proofs".
Jun 10 at 15:35 comment added Andy Putman This question is off-topic. Requests to check completeness of proofs are not allowed. The bounty prevents me from voting to close at the moment, but this question absolutely should be closed.
S Jun 10 at 15:16 history bounty started Jose Arnaldo Bebita
S Jun 10 at 15:16 history notice added Jose Arnaldo Bebita Draw attention
Jun 10 at 13:45 history undeleted Jose Arnaldo Bebita
Apr 27 at 10:31 history deleted Jose Arnaldo Bebita via Vote
Apr 27 at 9:36 answer added Jose Arnaldo Bebita timeline score: -3
Apr 27 at 9:30 review Close votes
Apr 27 at 10:36
Apr 27 at 7:59 history edited Jose Arnaldo Bebita CC BY-SA 4.0
added context
Apr 27 at 7:30 history asked Jose Arnaldo Bebita CC BY-SA 4.0