Timeline for "Infinity": A card game based on prime factorization and a question
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 6 at 13:41 | vote | accept | mathoverflowUser | ||
| May 1 at 17:49 | answer | added | Zack Wolske | timeline score: 1 | |
| Apr 24 at 2:02 | history | edited | Michael Hardy | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 7 characters in body
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| Apr 23 at 12:52 | history | edited | mathoverflowUser | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added link to MSE
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| Apr 23 at 12:44 | history | edited | mathoverflowUser | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added alternative set of cards
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| Apr 23 at 8:34 | comment | added | Peter Taylor | In that case it's certainly not as simple. There is a third scenario which is even trickier, and that's to introduce game theory: a player might choose not to make a legal hit in the hope of making a bigger hit later with the same card. | |
| Apr 23 at 8:10 | history | edited | mathoverflowUser | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added example sequence by PeterTaylor
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| Apr 23 at 8:07 | comment | added | mathoverflowUser | @PeterTaylor: Ok I understand your objection, but I assume, that one player wants to win and so he or she will make a hit as soon as possible from the pot. Does your argument also work in this scenario? | |
| Apr 23 at 8:03 | comment | added | mathoverflowUser | I will assume that if a player has a possible hit with the pot, then he or she will play the card to hit the pot. I do not understand your example... | |
| Apr 23 at 7:58 | comment | added | Peter Taylor | True, it's possible to get no hits even if all cards are played. If played in sequence, the last card on the stack when $4$ is played will be $3$ and that's not a hit. | |
| Apr 23 at 7:51 | comment | added | mathoverflowUser | @PeterTaylor $2$ and $4$ form a hit because $\max\{2/4,4/2\}=2$ is a prime number. | |
| Apr 23 at 7:33 | comment | added | mathoverflowUser | @PeterTaylor: Thank you for your comment. $1$ forms a hit only with the prime numbers. I am not sure what you mean by the sequence $2,3,4,5,\cdots$ has no hits? | |
| Apr 23 at 7:25 | comment | added | Peter Taylor | If I've understood correctly, you cannot guarantee a hit unless all cards are drawn. $1$ forms a hit with every other card, but otherwise the sequence $2, 3, 4, 5, \ldots$ has no hits. | |
| Apr 23 at 4:52 | history | asked | mathoverflowUser | CC BY-SA 4.0 |