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Apr 22 at 12:24 comment added Jochen Wengenroth Use test functions $f\in \mathscr D(\mathring K)$ and apply the definition of the distributional partial derivatives: $0=\int \langle \nabla f, w\rangle= \sum\limits_{k=1}^N \int \partial_j f \, w_j = \int f \mathrm{div}(w)$ and conclude $w=0$ a.e. (by the fundamental lemma of variational calculus).
S Apr 22 at 11:40 review First questions
Apr 22 at 12:43
S Apr 22 at 11:40 history asked Oersted CC BY-SA 4.0