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Apr 20 at 12:31 history edited Learning math CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 20 at 12:01 history edited Learning math CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 16 at 18:48 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 16 at 2:12 answer added Saúl RM timeline score: 2
Apr 16 at 1:35 comment added Saúl RM It seems a statement similar to the question you asked earlier should be enough to prove that for almost all $p^*$ in $M$, your condition holds (this is equivalent by Fubini to saying that for almost all $p\in M$, the set of points $p^*$ for which $d(p^*,\cdot)$ is minimized at more than one point in $O_p$ has measure $0$)
Apr 16 at 1:24 comment added Learning math @SaúlRM Thanks for confirming - okay let me think about it; my feeling is that for 'most' such $p^{*}\in M,$ it should be true - however, I'll sit down and think more...
Apr 16 at 1:22 comment added Saúl RM Yes, I would choose one of the two intersections of the axis with $\mathbb{S}^2$
Apr 16 at 1:12 comment added Learning math @SaúlRM Apologies, but the axis of rotation doesn't intersect the manifold $S^2$ except for the two end points, right? So does this mean you're choosing one of these two end points? P.S. I may reply in a few hours, since it's very late where I'm writing this from.
Apr 16 at 1:03 comment added Saúl RM Wouldn't this be not hold when $\mathbb{S}^1$ acts on $\mathbb{S}^2$ by rotations around some fixed axis, and if you let $p^*$ be a point in that axis?
Apr 16 at 0:49 history edited Learning math CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 16 at 0:43 history asked Learning math CC BY-SA 4.0