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S Mar 23, 2016 at 17:52 history suggested CommunityBot CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed a typo
Mar 23, 2016 at 17:29 review Suggested edits
S Mar 23, 2016 at 17:52
Nov 23, 2010 at 4:16 vote accept Paul Z
Nov 23, 2010 at 4:16
Nov 22, 2010 at 15:38 comment added Denis Serre This is exactly what I mean. In my example, $e_{pTp}(-\infty,t)$ is the eigenspace (a line) of $pTp$ associated with the eigenvalue $-\sqrt{1+a^2}$, whereas $e_{T}(-\infty,t)$ is the eigenspace (a line) of $T$ associated with the eigenvalue $-1$. These lines turn out to be distinct, so there is no inequality between the projectors.
Nov 22, 2010 at 15:25 comment added Paul Z But $e_{pTp}(-\infty, t)$ $\le$ $e_T(-\infty, t)$ does not imply that the range of $e_{pTp}(-\infty, t)$ is invariant under $T$.
Nov 22, 2010 at 15:22 comment added Paul Z Denis, Thanks for your answer. You guess is correct. I am sorry I should clarify my notations. If we write $T=\int_R \lambda d(e_{\lambda}) $, then $e_T(-\infty, t)$ means the projections corresponding to unique spectral decomposition of the operator $T$. Similarly, for $e_{pTp}(-\infty, t)$. And $e_{pTp}(-\infty, t)$ $\le$ $e_T(-\infty, t)$ means the range of the first projection is included in the range of the second projection.
Nov 22, 2010 at 7:12 history answered Denis Serre CC BY-SA 2.5