Skip to main content
15 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Apr 13 at 15:43 vote accept CWC
Apr 13 at 15:43
Apr 13 at 7:09 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
M
Apr 13 at 6:40 comment added Gerry Myerson I think you have $\psi-\phi$ in one place, where you want $\phi-\psi$.
Apr 13 at 5:36 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 34 characters in body
Apr 13 at 4:57 comment added Pietro Majer You are right: I realised that $\phi(t)-\psi(t)=o(t)$ as $t\to-\infty$ is much easier to prove, and it is sufficient to conclude
Apr 13 at 4:55 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
added 476 characters in body
Apr 13 at 4:21 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body
Apr 13 at 1:01 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
added 19 characters in body
Apr 12 at 17:30 comment added CWC Thank you. This is surprising and counter-intuitive to me. In your proof, the step that I am slightly confused with is the part where you show $\phi(t)-\psi(t) = o(1)$ by the dominated convergence theorem. It might be something trivial, but could you please elaborate?
Apr 12 at 16:15 comment added Pietro Majer Please ask, is something is not clear
Apr 11 at 21:07 history undeleted Pietro Majer
Apr 11 at 21:07 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
added 198 characters in body
Apr 11 at 20:53 history deleted Pietro Majer via Vote
Apr 11 at 20:22 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0
added 14 characters in body
Apr 11 at 20:09 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0