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Aug 13, 2016 at 19:23 answer added Peter May timeline score: 4
Nov 23, 2010 at 15:27 answer added Robert Bruner timeline score: 20
Nov 21, 2010 at 21:19 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams @skupers: No, it is not a theorem.
Nov 21, 2010 at 19:33 vote accept skupers
Nov 21, 2010 at 19:33 comment added skupers @Oscar. Is it a theorem that there is no such construction or is it simply too hard to give one when our models of $K(\mathbb{Z},n)$ get more complicated as $n$ increases?
Nov 21, 2010 at 10:52 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams If we have the same standard of what is meant by "explicit", then there is not an explicit construction of such an equivalence of spectra. This is because in particular it would give an explicit construction of the Thom class $X^\mu \to K(\mathbb{Z},n)$, for which there is none.
Nov 21, 2010 at 10:50 answer added Johannes Ebert timeline score: 23
Nov 21, 2010 at 0:44 comment added Eric Peterson You'd probably be interested in (at least the introduction of) arxiv.org/abs/0810.4535 , along with its lengthy bibliography.
Nov 20, 2010 at 23:43 history asked skupers CC BY-SA 2.5