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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Nov 21, 2010 at 20:46 vote accept Joseph O'Rourke
Nov 21, 2010 at 6:58 comment added Fedor Petrov No no, I meant what I said, but I've been mistaken, sorry. The natural conjecture is that $p$ lies in arithmetic progression of length $p$, but of course not more, by trivial reasons (modulo $p$). So, most probably we may cover all primes but finite number of them by arithmetic progressiond of arbitrary length.
Nov 21, 2010 at 6:34 comment added Idoneal In such problems, it is interesting to ignore the small primes and ask what happens for all sufficiently large primes. Perhaps that is what Fedor had meant.
Nov 21, 2010 at 0:28 comment added George Lowther I can't claim credit for that phrase, as I was just quoting Ben Green's linked answer.
Nov 21, 2010 at 0:16 comment added Joseph O'Rourke @George: Clever proof that 3 is not in a progression of length 4! Similarly 5 is not in a progression of length 6. So the question could be modified to ask for coverage of all but the beginning of the sequence. But I won't attempt to reformulate the question in light of your recognizing that deciding between 2 and 3 is already "beyond the current technology" (a useful [and optimistic!] phrase).
Nov 20, 2010 at 23:57 history edited George Lowther CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 20, 2010 at 23:38 history edited George Lowther CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 20, 2010 at 23:37 comment added George Lowther I think maybe, in his comment, Fedor was suggesting that it can be done using arithmetic progressions with arbitrarily large step size, rather than arbitrarily large length.
Nov 20, 2010 at 23:31 history answered George Lowther CC BY-SA 2.5