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Mar 27 at 16:44 history edited Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 26 at 21:45 comment added Alessandro Della Corte I think they are if the measure is invariant, yes.
Mar 26 at 12:07 comment added Nate River I doubt there is any simpler reformulation that does not end up reproving the backward martingale convergence theorem, since it seems the condition in the OP and the triviality of the tail sigma algebra are in fact equivalent?
Mar 26 at 12:06 comment added Nate River This was a surprising result to me when I first saw it here yesterday, but phrasing it in terms of martingale theory makes it seem much more natural.
Mar 25 at 23:18 history answered Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 4.0