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Apr 8 at 20:31 comment added Boaz Tsaban @HenrikRüping why is the map f that you defined linear? Consider f(a+a') such that <a,b> converges and <a',b> diverges. Then <a+a',b> diverges so f(a+a')=0, whereas f(a)+f(a')=<a,b>+0=<a,b>.
Mar 28 at 15:54 history edited Boaz Tsaban CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 28 at 15:49 vote accept Boaz Tsaban
Mar 25 at 18:58 answer added Colin McQuillan timeline score: 3
Mar 18 at 11:24 history edited Boaz Tsaban CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 18 at 11:24 comment added Boaz Tsaban @AlexanderOsipov indeed, I noticed this paper today and it is indeed interesting (despite not having direct implication on my question).
Mar 18 at 6:44 comment added Alexander Osipov You might be interested in the answer to my old question: arxiv.org/abs/2403.09785
Mar 16 at 21:30 history edited Boaz Tsaban CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 15 at 9:12 comment added Boaz Tsaban @HenrikRüping That would be interesting, too! In fact, if one could prove that for each $X$ of size continuum there is a uniformly continuous map with image of cardinality continuum, that would be equally interesting for me. However, I cannot see a manageable way to tackle this problem other than considering linear maps of the form I suggested.
Mar 15 at 8:44 comment added HenrikRüping What happens if one just requires the map just to be a linear map instead of being given this way ? (There are more linear maps, like for example the linear map that sends $x_*$ to the sum, if it converges and to zero otherwise).
Mar 14 at 22:47 history edited Boaz Tsaban CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 14 at 11:22 comment added Colin McQuillan In the same vein: mathoverflow.net/questions/330255/…
Mar 14 at 10:18 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 14 at 8:51 history edited Boaz Tsaban
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Mar 13 at 20:42 history asked Boaz Tsaban CC BY-SA 4.0