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Mar 24 at 10:39 answer added Alexey Ustinov timeline score: 1
Mar 24 at 5:54 comment added GH from MO @GerryMyerson I added a third proof (called "Second proof" in my post) based on quartic reciprocity in Gaussian integers.
Mar 23 at 23:51 comment added GH from MO @GerryMyerson I added another proof (called "First proof" in my post) that proceeds differently. This proof actually shows that if $p=A^2+B^2$ is a prime with $B\equiv 0\pmod{4}$, then every odd prime divisor of $B$ is a fourth power modulo $p$, and the $2$-power part of $B$ is also a fourth power modulo $p$.
Mar 11 at 13:01 vote accept Roland Bacher
Mar 11 at 1:09 history edited GH from MO
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Mar 10 at 22:29 comment added GH from MO @GerryMyerson Good point. Based on this result and another result of Emma Lehmer (1977), I managed to prove that $A$ and $B$ are fourth powers modulo $p$ when $p\equiv 1\pmod{16}$.
Mar 10 at 10:45 comment added Gerry Myerson There are explicit formulas for $A$ and $B$. If $p=4k+1$, we can take $A$ to be the absolute least residue of $(2k)!/(2(k!)^2)\bmod p$, and $B$ the absolute least residue of $A(2k)!$. Maybe this helps. See, e.g., math.stackexchange.com/q/45155
Mar 10 at 0:43 history became hot network question
Mar 9 at 18:11 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 11
Mar 9 at 18:06 comment added Roland Bacher @KConrad Thanks, good point. It is hopefully better now.
Mar 9 at 18:05 history edited Roland Bacher CC BY-SA 4.0
Rephrased the question concisely at the beginning.
Mar 9 at 17:30 comment added KConrad The post is long. Could you summarize the observations as its own focused paragraph: what appears to happen when $p\equiv 1 \bmod 8$, then $p\equiv 1\bmod 16$, and then say what breaks for modulus 32? That way a reader can see the main point more efficiently.
Mar 9 at 16:37 history asked Roland Bacher CC BY-SA 4.0