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Mar 7 at 0:34 vote accept Yousuf Soliman
Mar 6 at 23:24 comment added Sam Nead @YousufSoliman - if my answer has now answered your question, you might want to accept it (by clicking the check mark).
Mar 6 at 23:06 comment added Yousuf Soliman @SamNead Thanks! I see right away that this doesn’t even work for $n=1$
Mar 6 at 22:56 comment added Yousuf Soliman Hi @MoisheKohan, I see. This is about the markings around the points. Thanks.
Mar 6 at 22:33 comment added Moishe Kohan @YousufSoliman: Do you know the definition of the Teichmuller space? You are attempting to define inverse to a universal covering map.
Mar 6 at 22:00 history edited Sam Nead CC BY-SA 4.0
added 193 characters in body
Mar 6 at 21:54 comment added Yousuf Soliman @MoisheKohan Why is $\Phi$ not well-defined?
Mar 6 at 21:52 history edited Sam Nead CC BY-SA 4.0
added 265 characters in body
Mar 6 at 21:41 comment added Sam Nead Oops! I’ll delete my answer and rewrite.
Mar 6 at 21:30 comment added Moishe Kohan Not only it is not a homeomorphism, it is not even well-defined.
Mar 6 at 20:31 comment added Yousuf Soliman Thank you. Do you have a reference or a proof sketch that $\Phi$ is a homeomorphism?
Mar 6 at 20:19 history answered Sam Nead CC BY-SA 4.0