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Mar 24 at 17:42 vote accept David Fernandez-Breton
Feb 29 at 16:50 answer added Andreas Blass timeline score: 7
Feb 29 at 13:33 history edited David Fernandez-Breton CC BY-SA 4.0
added 287 characters in body; edited title
Feb 29 at 13:30 comment added David Fernandez-Breton @MikhailKatz you're right, the question as I stated it is quite tricky. Given the context of why I'm asking it, though, one should really be allowed to assume at least Dependent Choice. I will edit the question accordingly...
Feb 29 at 12:39 comment added Emil Jeřábek Some of the arguments in this great answer by Elliot Glazer may or may not be relevant to this question.
Feb 29 at 12:08 comment added Mikhail Katz This may be even trickier than you thought, because the definition itself of Lebesgue measure needs to be thought out carefully in the absence of the axiom of choice. We discussed this in our article Kanovei, V.; Katz, M. "A positive function with vanishing Lebesgue integral in Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory." Real Analysis Exchange 42(2), 2017, 385-390. See arxiv.org/abs/1705.00493 and doi.org/10.14321/realanalexch.42.2.0385 and mathscinet.ams.org/mathscinet-getitem?mr=3721807
Feb 29 at 12:03 history asked David Fernandez-Breton CC BY-SA 4.0