Timeline for Are projective tensor products left-exact if one considers only maps of norm at most 1?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 29 at 11:58 | vote | accept | Stephan Mescher | ||
| Feb 28 at 14:43 | answer | added | Mikael de la Salle | timeline score: 5 | |
| Feb 28 at 11:22 | comment | added | Stephan Mescher | Thanks for pointing this out! It seems I misread "non-archimedean" as not necessatrily archimedean... By an exact sequence in $\mathrm{Ban}_1$ I simply mean a short exact sequence of vector spaces whose terms are Banach spaces and whose linear maps have operator norm at most one. Sorry for being ambiguous. | |
| Feb 27 at 22:52 | comment | added | Mikael de la Salle | It would also help if you clarified what you mean by exact sequence in $\mathrm{Ban}_1$. | |
| Feb 27 at 19:13 | comment | added | Mikael de la Salle | What field are you working with? The reference you give is about non-archimedian fields. Over real or complex, it is very much non-left-exact, even in the restrictive sense. | |
| Feb 27 at 18:26 | history | asked | Stephan Mescher | CC BY-SA 4.0 |