Timeline for Goldman symplectic form vs Weil–Petersson symplectic form
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 27 at 16:15 | comment | added | AMath91 | Ok, you're right. But still, if with Goldman's conventions, Goldman symplectic form is (-8) times the Weil-Petersson symplectic form (as he claims in the paper), then when you take the standard killing form on the Lie algebra, you divide Goldman symplectic form by $4$, which means that the multiplicative factor should become $-2$. | |
Feb 27 at 15:54 | comment | added | Carlo Beenakker | Goldman defines the Killing form on page 214; that definition is a factor of 4 larger than the conventional definition (see for example math.stackexchange.com/a/2833737/87355 ), as pointed out in the first reference I cited. | |
Feb 27 at 15:28 | comment | added | AMath91 | I know the reference you are referring to. The problem is that I don't really agree with what they say. They say that Goldman uses $\mathrm{trace}(XY)$ as coupling in the Lie algebra but at page 211 of "The symplectic nature of fundamental groups of surfaces", Adv. in Math. 54 (1984), no. 2, 200-225, Goldman says that he is considering the Killing form on the Lie algebra. Moreover, the second paragraph of what the authors say is very unsatisfactory. | |
Feb 27 at 15:14 | history | edited | Carlo Beenakker | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Feb 27 at 14:34 | history | edited | Carlo Beenakker | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Feb 27 at 14:27 | history | edited | Carlo Beenakker | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Feb 27 at 14:07 | history | answered | Carlo Beenakker | CC BY-SA 4.0 |