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Dec 1, 2010 at 21:43 comment added mathbekunkus Thanks everyone for your comments, thanks Sean for your answer. @David Roberts: by homogeneous I mean that the trivialization of the bundle is given by the following diffeomorphisms of the base: $x\mapsto x+y$, that is, homogeneous under the action of the vector space as an additive group on the total space given by translations. Apparently what it takes for such a "meta-bundle" to be homogeneous in this sense is that it is diffeomorphic to the fibred product of the two bundles over $M$.
Dec 1, 2010 at 21:39 vote accept mathbekunkus
Nov 18, 2010 at 12:44 comment added Sean Tilson You are right, that is even better. My first thoughts are typically "is there an LES we can use?" Not to mention you then need to apply Whiteheads Thm.
Nov 18, 2010 at 8:52 comment added Johannes Ebert @Sean: you are killing flies with a sledgehammer. For any vector bundle, the zero section is a homotopy inverse to the bundle projection.
Nov 18, 2010 at 5:34 history answered Sean Tilson CC BY-SA 2.5