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Feb 13 at 22:30 comment added Anixx @SamHopkins I think, it is not productive to edit the question after each comment or partial answer.
Feb 13 at 22:27 comment added Sam Hopkins Can you refine your question? If it is "does every sequence $a_n$ arise in this way" the answer is clearly no as explained in the comments (there are many restrictions). But: can we specifically get the Bernoulli numbers seems more interesting. So focus on that question.
S Feb 13 at 7:23 history suggested CommunityBot CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Feb 13 at 7:23
Feb 13 at 4:57 history edited Sam Hopkins CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 13 at 0:22 comment added Anixx @paulgarrett I just tried to include motivation. Also, the umbra with moments $\frac1{n+1}$ corresponts to the operator $\Delta D^{-1}$ while Bernoulli umbra corresponds to $D \Delta^{-1}$, so it is anti-Bernoulli umbra in a sense.
Feb 13 at 0:19 comment added paul garrett There would be less overhead (possibly irrelevant) to the question if it were more direct: "given a sequence $a_n$, is there a function $f$ on the unit interval such that $\int_0^1f^n =a_n$?" ?
Feb 13 at 0:16 comment added Anixx @TomCopeland tried function $(2 x-1)^2-1$ as an example, got sequence $\frac{(-4)^n \Gamma (n+1)^2}{\Gamma (2 n+2)}$ with moments $\left\{-\frac{2}{3},\frac{8}{15},-\frac{16}{35},\frac{128}{315},-\frac{256}{693},...\right\}$
Feb 13 at 0:11 comment added Tom Copeland I scanned very quickly two papers that would likely have shown such a function for the Bernoullis, but did not find one.
Feb 13 at 0:04 comment added Tom Copeland My bad, you're right. $\int_{0}^x f(t) dt = b_0 x + b_1 x^2/2! + ...$ if $f(x) = b_0 + b_1 x+b_2x^2/2! + \cdots$.
Feb 13 at 0:04 comment added Christian Remling There are many restrictions, for example $a_1^2\le a_2$, by Cauchy-Schwarz.
Feb 13 at 0:02 comment added Anixx @TomCopeland but I agree that a sequence with zeros at even positions cannot be represented this way.
Feb 12 at 23:58 comment added Anixx @TomCopeland hmm, no. $a_1=1$ does not determine $f(x)=1$.
Feb 12 at 23:54 comment added Tom Copeland Consider the simplest cast $a_0 =1$, $a_1 = 1$, and $a_k =0$ otherwise. $a_1 =1$ determines $f(x) = 1$, but then this determines $a_k=1$ for $k >1$.
Feb 12 at 23:34 history asked Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0