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Feb 9 at 15:49 vote accept gmvh
Feb 9 at 15:38 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 3
Feb 9 at 15:12 comment added gmvh @IosifPinelis $p$ can be taken to be always positive, and in fact I'd be happy with a bound for the case of $p(x)=1$, $q(x)$ of definite sign already. What stumps me is the absence of a Grönwall inequality for second order.
Feb 9 at 14:18 comment added Iosif Pinelis I think, to get a finite bound on $\|u\|_1$, we need some condition preventing $p$ and $q$ from being too close to zero.
Feb 9 at 10:35 history asked gmvh CC BY-SA 4.0