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Feb 24 at 23:50 vote accept user139952
Feb 5 at 5:14 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 1
Feb 4 at 0:39 history edited kodlu CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 3 at 15:44 comment added Christian Remling More specifically, this gives $P(x_1+\ldots +x_k\le s)= \binom{n}{k}\int\ldots\int (1-t)^{n-k}\, dt_1\ldots dt_k$, where the integration is over $t_1+\ldots +t_k\le s$, and $t=\max t_j$.
Feb 3 at 15:34 comment added Christian Remling Can't you just do this as a calculus problem? The joint density of the order statistics is $n!$ where it is non-zero, so the probability that $x_1+\ldots +x_k\le b$ equals $n!$ times the volume of the region defined by this condition and $0\le x_1\le x_2\le \ldots \le x_n\le 1$.
Feb 3 at 15:06 comment added James Martin If $k$ and $\alpha$ are fixed and $n\to\infty$, the statement isn't true in fact. For example, the probability that $x_1$ exceeds $\alpha(k+1)/(2(n+1))$ converges to $e^{-\alpha(k+1)/2}$ -- in that case the sum $x_1+\dots+x_k$ certainly exceeds the given threshold. For $k\to\infty$, a useful approach may be that $x_{k+1}$ concentrates, and then conditional on $x_{k+1}$, the sum $x_1+ \dots+x_k$ has the same distribution as $x_{k+1}(U_1+\dots+U_k)$ where $U_i$ are i.i.d. $U[0,1]$, to which you can indeed apply Chernoff or whatever.
Feb 3 at 12:24 comment added user139952 It could be fixed, but could also be a function of $n$.
Feb 3 at 8:27 comment added mathworker21 Do you view $k$ as fixed?
Feb 3 at 7:35 history asked user139952 CC BY-SA 4.0