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Jan 19 at 6:06 comment added Akira @PietroMajer A well-known upper bound is $|\partial_1^2 g_t( y)| \lesssim \frac{g_{4t} (y)}{4t}$, so I guess it is not integrable.
Jan 19 at 4:20 vote accept Akira
Jan 18 at 23:39 answer added Giorgio Metafune timeline score: 4
Jan 18 at 20:28 comment added Akira @PietroMajer Thank you so much for your elaboration! I have updated my question to make it non-trivial. Please have a check on it.
Jan 18 at 20:27 history edited Akira CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18 at 20:10 comment added Pietro Majer I’d say the answer is yes, since F is a convolution of f with an $L^1 $ function G. Write $F(x)-F(x’) $ with the convolution integrands as $f(x-y)G(y)$ and $f(x’-y)G(y),$ and use the Hoelder inequality for $f.$
Jan 18 at 20:06 history edited Akira CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18 at 19:48 history asked Akira CC BY-SA 4.0