Timeline for Simple question about 0,1-polynomials

10 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Jan 16 at 6:42	vote	accept	Denis Ivanov
Jan 15 at 16:36	answer	added	Peter Taylor		timeline score: 2
Jan 15 at 16:35	comment	added	Denis Ivanov		@DenisShatrov, could you explain more detailed please?
Jan 15 at 16:33	history	edited	Denis Ivanov	CC BY-SA 4.0	added 161 characters in body
Jan 15 at 16:32	comment	added	Peter Taylor		Yes, precisely.
Jan 15 at 16:31	comment	added	Denis Shatrov		In other words, $P_n = Q_n$ if no carries occur when calculating the product $p_1^{m_1} \cdot \ldots \cdot p_k^{m_k}$ in binary.
Jan 15 at 16:24	history	edited	Denis Ivanov	CC BY-SA 4.0	deleted 82 characters in body
Jan 15 at 16:24	comment	added	Denis Ivanov		@PeterTaylor, yes, but there are other numbers (not $2^ap$) with this properties: $15, 30, 51, 60, 85\dots$
Jan 15 at 15:49	comment	added	Peter Taylor		The examples you give can easily be explained by observing that the property always holds for $n$ of the form $2^a p$ when $p$ is prime. Perhaps the easiest characterisation, although maybe not the most useful, is that $Q_n = P_n$ whenever $Q_n$ is a $0,1$-polynomial.
Jan 15 at 15:19	history	asked	Denis Ivanov	CC BY-SA 4.0