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Jan 12 at 12:55 comment added Paul R @IosifPinelis , thank you very much!
Jan 11 at 22:33 comment added Iosif Pinelis This joint distribution is the bivariate normal distribution with the marginals as in your previous comment and with correlation $1/\sqrt2$, as I mentioned previously.
Jan 11 at 9:43 comment added Paul R @IosifPinelis , what is the joint distribution in this case?
Jan 10 at 22:49 comment added Iosif Pinelis The correlation, say between $X$ and $Y$, is about the joint distribution of $X$ and $Y$. The individual distributions of $X$ and of $Y$ can tell you nothing about their correlation.
Jan 10 at 21:40 comment added Paul R Can you explain why? I thought that $W_{\frac{T}{N}}\sim N\left(0,\frac{T}{N}\right)$ and $W_{\frac{2T}{N}}\sim N\left(0,\frac{2T}{N}\right)$. I don't see correlation between them.
Jan 10 at 21:38 comment added Iosif Pinelis Your summands are not increments of the Wiener process. In particular, the random variables $W_{T/N}$ and $W_{2T/N}$ are correlated (with correlation coefficient $1/\sqrt2$) and hence (positively) dependent.
Jan 10 at 21:30 comment added Paul R @IosifPinelis , why are they independent? Wiener process has independent increments: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
Jan 10 at 21:29 comment added Iosif Pinelis This application of the Berry--Esseen inequality is incorrect -- because that inequality is for sums of indepedendent random summands, whereas your summands are not independent.
Jan 10 at 21:16 history asked Paul R CC BY-SA 4.0