If $X_1, \ldots , X_k$ are i.i.d normal random variables with mean $0$ and variance $1$, then is there a way to sample $Y_1, \ldots , Y_m$ for $m=\omega(k)$ such that each of the $Y_i$'s is a normal random variable with mean $0$ and variance $1$ and they are pairwise independent?