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Jan 5 at 11:25 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 5 at 3:00 vote accept Neil Epstein
Jan 5 at 2:28 comment added Neil Epstein Also, reduced rings don't embed in fields unless they don't have nonzero zero divisors. But I'll go ahead and accept the answer now. Thank you!
Jan 5 at 1:53 comment added Will Sawin @NeilEpstein I just mean the induced map $id \otimes f \colon \mathcal O(X) \otimes_K S \to \mathcal O(X)$. Now edited to clarify a bit.
Jan 5 at 1:52 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 4 at 22:30 comment added Neil Epstein Never mind. I see now how to adapt this to a rigorous proof.
Jan 4 at 22:21 comment added Neil Epstein ‘t make sense. But I don’t see such a map.
Jan 4 at 22:20 comment added Neil Epstein Another question: It seems we should need a map from the ring you constructed (let’s call it $S$) to $\mathcal{O}(X)$, rather than to $K$. Otherwise the expression $f(\sum_i a_i b_i)$ doesn
Jan 4 at 20:48 comment added Will Sawin @NeilEpstein Since $a_0=1$, we can replace $f(b_0)$ by $f(b_0)- \sum_i a_i f(b_i)$ to get a linear relation, which is nontrivial since $f(b_j)\neq 0$.
Jan 4 at 20:42 comment added Neil Epstein I’m almost with you, except for one step. We have $\sum_i a_i f(b_i) \in K$ and $f(b_j) \neq 0$. How does that contradict linear independence of the $a_i$ over $K$?
Jan 4 at 18:17 history edited GNiklasch CC BY-SA 4.0
summation index grouping
Jan 4 at 18:00 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 4.0