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Jan 9 at 0:02 vote accept gdoug
Dec 21, 2023 at 16:08 comment added Zeta Then you should consider to accept the corresponding answer.
Dec 18, 2023 at 23:04 comment added gdoug Yes! My original intent was to find any such construction, and I think the way this has progressed satisfies that.
Dec 16, 2023 at 17:23 answer added Pietro Majer timeline score: 2
Dec 16, 2023 at 14:36 comment added Steven Landsburg @FredHucht has turned this into a quite interesting question. It would be nice if you revealed whether that's the question you intended.
Dec 16, 2023 at 10:54 history edited gmvh
Added top-level tags
Dec 15, 2023 at 13:20 history edited Max Lonysa Muller
Added a relevant tag
Dec 15, 2023 at 11:12 answer added Fred Hucht timeline score: 10
Dec 14, 2023 at 23:19 comment added Fred Hucht I think one can construct higher order solutions using a power series ansatz for $\phi(x)$ and $f(x)$. I found a linear and a quadratic solution in $\phi$, but I have to go to bed now :-).
Dec 14, 2023 at 22:30 comment added Fred Hucht One possible not so trivial solution is $\phi(x)=f(x)=c$, $\psi(x)=c x$, $F(x)=c x/(1+c)$.
Dec 14, 2023 at 21:36 comment added Sidharth Ghoshal Namely instead of picking any $\psi$ you must find a $\psi$ s.t. $\psi’(T^{-1}) (T^{-1})’ = \psi’(Q^{-1})$ which is a highly non linear equation since $T,Q$ depend on $\psi$ too, still unless something crazy is happening, this probably has some non trivial solutions. And once we find one such $\psi$ everything else falls into place
Dec 14, 2023 at 21:32 comment added Sidharth Ghoshal If we assume we can take function inverses easily. Then if $T = x + \psi(x)$ then $\psi(T^{-1}) = F$ and similarly if $Q = x + \psi’(x)$ then $\psi’(Q^{-1}) = f$. So given a choice of $\psi$ you can formally speaking find the $F,f,\phi$ using this procedure. The situation gets a lot harder when adding the $F’ = f$ constraint
Dec 14, 2023 at 21:22 comment added Sidharth Ghoshal With @LSpice’s nice idea we basically want to find an $f,F,\phi,\psi$ such that we have some subset of $S \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ where for every $x \in S$ $f(x+\phi(x)) = \phi(x)$ and $F(x+\psi(x)) = \psi(x)$ and $(\psi)’ = \phi$ seeing that it’s 3 equations and 4 unknown functions this should probably be possible. Adding the condition $F’ = f$ gives us 4 equations and 4 unknowns so perhaps with some luck that’s also tractable.
Dec 14, 2023 at 21:11 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body; edited title
Dec 14, 2023 at 1:55 review Close votes
Dec 22, 2023 at 3:05
Dec 14, 2023 at 0:14 comment added LSpice @No-one, re, presumably a solution $\phi$ of the functional equation $\phi(x) = f(x + \phi(x))$? (But I don't know to what extent such a solution exists, or is unique.)
Dec 14, 2023 at 0:13 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
TeX
Dec 14, 2023 at 0:10 comment added No-one What do you mean by that infinite composition of functions?
S Dec 13, 2023 at 23:50 review First questions
Dec 14, 2023 at 0:41
S Dec 13, 2023 at 23:50 history asked gdoug CC BY-SA 4.0