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Dec 16, 2023 at 3:30 comment added zemora Hi, I have edited my question. I guess the ambiguity of $\tilde{Y}$ is not the main problem, because one can define $\tilde{Y}$ by using the last random stream that succeeded in producing a coupling? Isn't the use of old randomness lies in the argument "by the arbitrariness of $\epsilon$"? Because resuing old randomness ensures that once we go further into the past, all chains will still couple at $Y$, hence the left hand of $|P(Y=s_i)-\pi(s_i)|\leq\epsilon$ does not change?
Dec 14, 2023 at 18:59 history edited jlewk CC BY-SA 4.0
typo in states {1,2,3} versus {0,1,2}. Now {0,1,2} is used everywhere.
Dec 1, 2023 at 7:43 comment added jlewk If all previous randomness is thrown away everytime $i$ is increased, how to pick the randomness to define $\tilde Y$? We have now several candidates since the randomness indexed at $-1$ has been resampled $i$ times. By not throwing away, $\tilde Y$ is well defined.
Dec 1, 2023 at 6:57 comment added zemora Thank you. I know the counterexamples that demonstrate why one should reuse randomness, and why coupling into the future will not work. What puzzled me is how they are used in the proof, because the proof itself did not explicitly say "Since we are using the old randomness, we have blahblah..."
Dec 1, 2023 at 5:44 history edited jlewk CC BY-SA 4.0
Add definition of random f
Dec 1, 2023 at 5:31 history answered jlewk CC BY-SA 4.0