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S Jul 27 at 21:23 history bounty ended user479223
S Jul 27 at 21:23 history notice removed user479223
Jul 20 at 21:31 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 6
Jul 20 at 20:44 comment added Carlo Beenakker It might be helpful if you could tell us in what respect rigor is missing in the usual proof of the fact that the Hamiltonian corresponding to a Lagrangian $L(q,\dot{q},\ddot{q})$ is linear in $\partial L/\partial \ddot{q}$ and hence is unbounded, for example as given on page 1 of arXiv:2001.02483. Note that this not yet refer to the appearance of an instability. That goes beyond Ostrogradsky, is not part of the theorem, and is not true in general (counterexamples are in arXiv:2403.19777).
Jul 20 at 20:37 comment added algori I've added the "classical mechanics" tag. People who work on it might know the answer.
Jul 20 at 20:36 history edited algori
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S Jul 20 at 20:04 history bounty started user479223
S Jul 20 at 20:04 history notice added user479223 Authoritative reference needed
S Nov 26, 2023 at 2:01 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Nov 26, 2023 at 2:01 history notice removed CommunityBot
S Nov 18, 2023 at 0:07 history bounty started user479223
S Nov 18, 2023 at 0:07 history notice added user479223 Authoritative reference needed
Nov 10, 2023 at 22:45 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 10, 2023 at 22:30 history asked user479223 CC BY-SA 4.0