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Nov 10, 2023 at 5:39 comment added Fedor Petrov @IosifPinelis A bit more general series $\sum \frac{\cos a n \sin(an+b)}n$ (in our situation $a=b=1$) is convergent if and only if $b/\pi \notin \mathbb{Z}$.
Nov 9, 2023 at 22:12 history closed user99863
Matthias Ludewig
Christian Remling
Boris Bukh
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Nov 9, 2023 at 21:44 comment added Iosif Pinelis @FedorPetrov : What do you mean by "only $1/\pi\notin\mathbb Z$ [is needed]"? This just follows by Dirichlet's test.
Nov 9, 2023 at 21:26 review Close votes
Nov 9, 2023 at 22:15
Nov 9, 2023 at 21:19 comment added Fedor Petrov @Aleksei Irrationality of $\pi$ is not needed, by the way, only $1/\pi \notin \mathbb{Z} $
Nov 9, 2023 at 21:11 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 2
Nov 9, 2023 at 20:57 comment added user516435 Thanks, I forgot my trigonomical formulas.
Nov 9, 2023 at 19:14 comment added Robert Israel Indeed, $\cos(n) \sin(n+1) = \frac{\sin(2n+1)}{2} + \frac{\sin(1)}{2}$. The sum of a convergent series and a divergent series is divergent.
Nov 9, 2023 at 18:55 comment added Aleksei Kulikov Average value of $\cos(x)\sin(x+1)$ is $\sin(1)/2 \approx 0.42\ldots \neq 0$, so the sum should diverge. I think it wouldn't be too hard to prove using some sort of equidistribution (and, of course, irrationality of $\pi$), but I'll leave it to someone else.
S Nov 9, 2023 at 18:48 review First questions
Nov 9, 2023 at 21:15
S Nov 9, 2023 at 18:48 history asked user516435 CC BY-SA 4.0