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Nov 2, 2018 at 16:52 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://tea.mathoverflow.net/ with http://mathoverflow.tqft.net/
Nov 12, 2010 at 13:41 comment added Gerry Myerson @SJR, yes.
Nov 12, 2010 at 6:31 comment added Sidney Raffer Notice that by Denis's reply if $e+1/(2\pi)$ is rational, then $n!/(2\pi)$ tends to a limit, namely 0, ie if $\cos(n!)$ does not tend to a limit, then $e+1/(2\pi)$ is irrational. The latter is open, isn't it?
Nov 12, 2010 at 4:54 comment added Will Jagy You are correct, oh gerriferous one. I think Anton made it a link in the question as well.
Nov 12, 2010 at 4:27 comment added Gerry Myerson OP mentioned this thread, but thanks for posting the link.
Nov 12, 2010 at 4:11 history answered Will Jagy CC BY-SA 2.5