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Oct 30, 2023 at 13:09 comment added Z. M I have confusions about your notation. In the perfection, you wrote $\bar{\mathbb F}_p$ in the perfection, but is $X$ over $\bar{\mathbb F}_p$ or $\mathbb F_p$? In the former case, $X(\mathbb F_p)$ does not make much sense.
Oct 30, 2023 at 0:40 comment added David Roberts @LSpice I disagree. There are ideas based on intuition that are "morally" correct, and fruitful, without necessarily being precise. (I take by "out of order" you don't mean "against the rules", but "in the wrong order"?)
Oct 29, 2023 at 23:38 history edited Tim CC BY-SA 4.0
added 19 characters in body
Oct 29, 2023 at 23:33 history edited Tim CC BY-SA 4.0
added 19 characters in body
Oct 29, 2023 at 23:14 comment added LSpice The question seems out of order—surely an intuition can't be correct or incorrect until it is made precise?
Oct 29, 2023 at 23:14 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 29, 2023 at 23:12 history asked Tim CC BY-SA 4.0