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S Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23 vote accept No-one
Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23 vote accept No-one
S Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23
S Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23 vote accept No-one
Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23
Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23 vote accept No-one
S Oct 26, 2023 at 11:23
Oct 26, 2023 at 11:02 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 4
Oct 26, 2023 at 4:30 vote accept No-one
Oct 26, 2023 at 11:22
Oct 26, 2023 at 4:25 comment added No-one @LSpice Thanks for editing (and of course it should be $\mathbb{R}$ not $\mathbb{R}^n$ in my previous comment).
Oct 26, 2023 at 4:21 vote accept No-one
Oct 26, 2023 at 4:21
Oct 26, 2023 at 4:20 history edited No-one CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Oct 26, 2023 at 2:50 answer added Saúl RM timeline score: 5
Oct 26, 2023 at 2:15 comment added LSpice Re, OK, thanks. I have edited accordingly.
Oct 26, 2023 at 2:15 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Editing in name of paper from https://mathoverflow.net/questions/457154/if-mathcalhn-1k-0-in-mathbbrn-then-mathcalhnk-times-mathb#comment1184050_457154
Oct 26, 2023 at 1:40 comment added No-one @LSpice The paper in question is this one from Simon and Wickramasekera onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/cpa.21642. In the proof of the theorem contained in the appendix at the end it seems like they are using the result I have stated in the body of my question to get (in their notations) $\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(P(\tilde{\Gamma})\times \mathbb{R}^n)=0$.
Oct 26, 2023 at 1:37 history edited No-one CC BY-SA 4.0
added 8 characters in body
Oct 26, 2023 at 0:24 comment added LSpice What is the paper?
Oct 26, 2023 at 0:06 history edited No-one CC BY-SA 4.0
added 99 characters in body; edited title
Oct 25, 2023 at 23:56 history asked No-one CC BY-SA 4.0