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Nov 12, 2010 at 17:52 history edited zhoraster CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 12, 2010 at 16:41 comment added John Jiang Thanks again! Your geometric ansatz really helped. I'd be glad to hear how to go directly from I to J, as I am still interested in the entire J sequence, and hopefully prove something nice about them.
Nov 12, 2010 at 10:09 comment added zhoraster @John Jiang: I see, I had another formula initially (from $E_k/E$), just didn't see that it can be reduced to this. I even discovered now that it is quite straightforward to go from the distribution of $I$ to the one of $J$ omitting $E$. Anyway, glad that you've found it, congratulations!
Nov 12, 2010 at 9:26 comment added John Jiang @zhoraster: actually I was able to use the formula you gave above to compute the exact distribution of the minimum: $P(\min J_i > y) = (1-y n(n+1)/2)^{n-1}$, so it doesn't seem bad at all. What I did is a pretty geometric argument. Notice that $y$ ranges between $0$ and $2/(n(n+1))$, as expected from its being the smallest gap of gaps of $n$ points on the circle. Using that formula, we just need to integrate $P(\min J_i > y)$ for $y \in [0,2/(n(n+1))]$ to get the expected value, which is $2/((n-1)n(n+1))$.
Nov 12, 2010 at 8:01 comment added zhoraster @John Jiang: You're warmly welcome. Precise formulas useless here, if you want, I can look into asymptotics.
Nov 12, 2010 at 6:16 comment added John Jiang Thank you for the great answer. I am always scared of exact formulas.
Nov 12, 2010 at 6:09 vote accept John Jiang
Nov 12, 2010 at 6:09
Nov 11, 2010 at 10:54 history edited zhoraster CC BY-SA 2.5
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Nov 11, 2010 at 10:47 history answered zhoraster CC BY-SA 2.5