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Nov 17, 2010 at 10:31 vote accept Andrej Bauer
Nov 17, 2010 at 9:21 vote accept Andrej Bauer
Nov 17, 2010 at 10:31
Nov 17, 2010 at 1:56 comment added Gerhard Paseman If you can get it, Chapter 5 of "Algebras, Lattices, Varieties" has a lot to say about unique factorization, and contains theorems and examples similar to what Gerald Edgar posted. My advisor Ralph McKenzie was one of the authors. Lovasz's proof of the cancellation theorem is one of the most amazing results I have seen, and a version of it is in the chapter. Gerhard "Ask Me About System Design" Paseman, 2010.11.16
Nov 17, 2010 at 1:00 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 3
Nov 17, 2010 at 0:06 answer added Steve Lack timeline score: 3
Nov 11, 2010 at 16:11 comment added Todd Trimble A side note is that the term "indecomposable" might be preferable to "irreducible". Usually "irreducible" means having no nontrivial quotients, e.g., for group theory, irreducibles are simple groups. The group $S_3$ is an indecomposable which is not irreducible.
Nov 11, 2010 at 14:44 comment added Andrej Bauer It seems that the Krull-Schmidt theorem, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Krull%E2%80%93Schmidt_theorem, answers my question positively for groups.
Nov 11, 2010 at 13:40 comment added Andrej Bauer In terms of groups the question is this: can a finite group be a direct product of irreducible groups in two essentially different ways? (A group is irreducible if it cannot be written as a non-trivial direct product.) I suspect Jordan–Hölder theorem is relevant here, but I am not an algebraist. Is a simple group the same thing as an irreducible group?
Nov 11, 2010 at 9:39 comment added Denis Serre I'm not sure if it helps, but in finite group theory, the decomposition of a $\mathbb C$-representation into irreducible ones is not unique, unless all their multiplicities are $0$ or $1$. For instance, the decomposition of the regular representation of a finite group $G$ is not unique, unless $G$ is abelian.
Nov 11, 2010 at 8:59 history asked Andrej Bauer CC BY-SA 2.5