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Oct 15, 2023 at 16:26 comment added Friedrich Knop If $X$ and $Y$ are affine then this is certainly true. By assumption, every $f\in\mathcal{O}(X)^G$ satisfies an integrality equation over $\mathcal{O}(Y)$. Now apply the Reynolds operator to this equation and one gets an integrality equation over $\mathcal{O}(Y)^G$. So $\mathcal{O}(X)^G$ is integral hence finite over $\mathcal{O}(Y)^G$. The general case should follow with standard arguments.
Oct 15, 2023 at 13:22 history asked Joe Silverman CC BY-SA 4.0