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Oct 15, 2023 at 9:09 history edited Dave Benson CC BY-SA 4.0
Expanded the argument a bit.
Oct 13, 2023 at 23:14 comment added Andrea Aveni I see, thank you!
Oct 13, 2023 at 23:13 vote accept Andrea Aveni
Oct 13, 2023 at 23:03 comment added YCor The normalizer $N$ of $G$ in $\mathrm{SO}_n$ is reduced to $G$. The reason is that $N/G$ being a compact Lie group, if it is not trivial, then it has a nontrivial finite subgroup, and hence pulling back contradicts the maximality of $G$ among finite subgroups of $\mathrm{SO}_n$. Hence either $H$ is empty and $G$ equals its normalizer in $\mathrm{O}_n$, or $H$ is nonempty and $G$ has index two in its normalizer, which is then $G\sqcup H$.
Oct 13, 2023 at 20:47 comment added Andrea Aveni Sorry, but why is that $\ker \det|_{N_{\mathrm{O}_n(\mathbb R)}(G)}=G$ and not some dense subgroup of $\mathrm{SO}_n(\mathbb R)$? I guess this equality holds iff $N_{\mathrm{SO}_n(\mathbb R)}(G)$ is finite, but I don't see why this must be the case.
Oct 13, 2023 at 19:17 comment added Max Horn For index reasons: restrict the determinant to the normalizer $N$; then its kernel must be $G$, and by the homomorphism theorem the kernel has index 2.
Oct 13, 2023 at 19:04 comment added Andrea Aveni I agree that $G^h=G$ and thus $\langle G,h\rangle$ is a subgroup of the normalizer of $G$ in $\mathrm O_n(\mathbb R)$. I also agree that if we assume this normalizer to be finite, then $\langle G,h\rangle=\langle G, h'\rangle$ (because otherwise $hh'$ would be in $\mathrm{SO}_n(\mathbb R)\setminus G$ and, with $G$ it would generate an infinite group). But why should this normalizer be finite? Thank you
Oct 13, 2023 at 16:47 history edited Dave Benson CC BY-SA 4.0
added 233 characters in body
Oct 13, 2023 at 16:36 history answered Dave Benson CC BY-SA 4.0