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Oct 6, 2023 at 16:59 comment added Steven Stadnicki I'm still curious as to whether there's an answer with $q()$ irreducible but this absolutely answers the question I had. Thank you!
Oct 6, 2023 at 16:58 vote accept Steven Stadnicki
Oct 5, 2023 at 16:34 comment added Steven Stadnicki I should have clarified degree $\lt n$; thank you! I was thinking that any polynomials of degree higher than $q$ would yield a polynomial quotient that integrated to a rational value, but forgot that that rational value can be zero; more broadly, if $\int_0^1\frac{p(x)}{q(x)}\in\mathbb{Q}\pi$ then so is $\int_0^1\frac{p(x)+z(x)q(x)}{q(x)}$ for any $z(x)$ with $\int_0^1z(x)=0$.
Oct 5, 2023 at 14:35 history edited Robert Israel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 5, 2023 at 0:22 history edited Robert Israel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 5, 2023 at 0:09 history answered Robert Israel CC BY-SA 4.0