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Timeline for Formal series which are always zero

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Oct 18, 2023 at 14:21 comment added Laurent Berger How about something like this: the claim is true if $n=1$. If $n>1$ you can write $f(T_1,...T_n)$ as $\sum_{i \geq 0} f_i(T_1,...,T_{n-1}) \cdot T_n^i$. Then the $n=1$ case will tell you that $f_i(x_1,...,x_{n-1})=0$ for all $x \in k^{n-1}$ and you can finish by induction.
Oct 5, 2023 at 7:37 history became hot network question
Oct 5, 2023 at 1:11 vote accept Luiz Felipe Garcia
Oct 5, 2023 at 0:16 answer added YCor timeline score: 6
Oct 4, 2023 at 23:59 comment added YCor You need to assume that $k$ is infinite ($k$ finite with all nonzero element of norm one would yield counterexamples with $n=1$).
Oct 4, 2023 at 23:30 history asked Luiz Felipe Garcia CC BY-SA 4.0