Timeline for Formal series which are always zero
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Oct 18, 2023 at 14:21 | comment | added | Laurent Berger | How about something like this: the claim is true if $n=1$. If $n>1$ you can write $f(T_1,...T_n)$ as $\sum_{i \geq 0} f_i(T_1,...,T_{n-1}) \cdot T_n^i$. Then the $n=1$ case will tell you that $f_i(x_1,...,x_{n-1})=0$ for all $x \in k^{n-1}$ and you can finish by induction. | |
Oct 5, 2023 at 7:37 | history | became hot network question | |||
Oct 5, 2023 at 1:11 | vote | accept | Luiz Felipe Garcia | ||
Oct 5, 2023 at 0:16 | answer | added | YCor | timeline score: 6 | |
Oct 4, 2023 at 23:59 | comment | added | YCor | You need to assume that $k$ is infinite ($k$ finite with all nonzero element of norm one would yield counterexamples with $n=1$). | |
Oct 4, 2023 at 23:30 | history | asked | Luiz Felipe Garcia | CC BY-SA 4.0 |