Now, fix $(t_1 <t_2<\cdots < t_p)$. We can show, starting from condition 2 and using (\ref{I}) and (\ref{uan}), that: $$\sum_{j=0}^n \left(\theta_{jn} , \theta_{(j+ t_2 - t_1)n }, \dotsc, \theta_{(j+ t_p - t_1)n } \right) \varepsilon_{t_1-j;n} \Longrightarrow (X_{t_1}, X_{t_2},\dotsc, X_{t_p})\quad (n \to \infty).$$ For simplicity, denote $X_{jn}:=\left(\theta_{jn} , \theta_{(j+ t_2 - t_1)n }, \dotsc, \theta_{(j+ t_p - t_1)n } \right) \varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}$ and $X:=(X_{t_1}, X_{t_2},\dotsc, X_{t_p})$ (note that $X_{jn}$ and $X$ depends on $t_1, t_2,\dotsc, t_p$). So, the last equation means that $$S_n := \sum_{j=0}^n X_{jn} \Longrightarrow X\quad (n \to \infty).$$ Finally, we can show that there exist a non-negative definite matrix $\Sigma$ and a Levy measure $\nu$ such that the characteristic function of $X$ is: $$\varphi_X(u)= \exp\left\{ \frac{-u' \Sigma u}{2} +\int_{\mathbb R^p} \left[e^{iu'x} - 1- i u'x \right] d\nu(x) \right\}.$$ AdoptingWe adopt the following notation: \begin{equation} X_{jn}\sim \nu_{jn}(dx), \,\, \nu_n(dx):= \sum_{j=0}^n\nu_{jn}(dx). \end{equation} I can show that condition 1 and (\ref{uan}) imply: \begin{equation}\label{ui}\tag{UI} \int_{\mathbb R^p} |x|^2 \nu_{n}(dx) = \sum_{j=0}^n \int_{\mathbb R^p} |x|^2 \nu_{jn}(dx) \longrightarrow \int_{\mathbb R^p} |x|^2 \nu(dx)< \infty,\quad ( n\to \infty) \end{equation} Notice that $\nu_{jn}$ is a probability measure in $\mathbb R^p$, since it depends on $\mu_{n}(dx)$ — the probability measure of the iid $(\varepsilon_{t;n})_{t \in \mathbb Z}$ defined on borelians of $\mathbb R$ — but also depends on the vector $\left(\theta_{jn} , \theta_{(j+ t_2 - t_1)n }, \dotsc, \theta_{(j+ t_p - t_1)n } \right)\in \mathbb R^p$.
Moreover, the measure $\nu$ can be characterized as follows: let $\mathcal C_\#$ be the class of continuous and bounded functions vanishing on a neighborhood of $0$. Then: \begin{equation}\label{M}\tag{M} \int f \, \nu_n(dx) \to \int f \, \nu(dx),\quad \forall f \in \mathcal C_\# \quad (n \to \infty). \end{equation} or equivalently (See Barczy and Pap - Portmanteau theorem for unbounded measures): $$\nu_n(E) \longrightarrow \nu(E), \quad (E\,\,\ \nu\hbox{-contunity set}, 0 \notin \overline{E},\,\, n \to \infty )\label{MI}\tag{M'}$$
Question I
Notice that $E[S_n]=0$$E[S_n]= \int_{\mathbb R^p} x \nu_n(dx) =0$, for all $n$. I want to show that: $$\int_{\mathbb R^p} x \nu(dx)\overset{*}{=}\int_{\mathbb R^p} \frac{x}{|x|^2} m(dx) =0,\\ \hbox{where}\quad m(B):= \int_{B} |x|^2 \nu(dx)< \infty, \,\,\, \forall\, B \in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb R^p)\label{q1}\tag{I}$$$$\int_{\mathbb R^p} x \nu(dx) =0\label{q1}\tag{I}$$ $(*)$ is by definition of change of measure. CanCan we show (\ref{q1}) or can we give a counterexample? I would venture to say that this is true due to (\ref{ui}), using an argument similar to uniform integrability.
Question IIAttempt
I'm trying to investigate under what conditions we have $\nu(\mathbb R^p)< \infty$ or $\nu(\mathbb R^p)=\infty$.
For that, let $A= [-a,a]^p = [-a,a] \times \cdots \times [-a,a]$First, with $a >0$. NoteI can show that $\nu_n(\mathbb R^p)= \sum_{j=0}^n \nu_{jn}(\mathbb R^p)=n+1$. Socondition 1 and (\ref{uan}) imply: $$n+1= \nu_n(A) + \nu_n (A^c) \label{II}\tag{II}$$\begin{equation}\label{ui}\tag{UI} \int_{\mathbb R^p} |x|^2 \nu_{n}(dx) = \sum_{j=0}^n \int_{\mathbb R^p} |x|^2 \nu_{jn}(dx) \longrightarrow \int_{\mathbb R^p} |x|^2 \nu(dx)< \infty,\quad ( n\to \infty) \end{equation}
It is easy to show the following:
Statement: If $\limsup \nu_n(A) < \infty$ (or $\liminf \nu_n(A) < \infty$) for som $a>0$, then $\nu(A) = \infty$ (Consequently, $\nu(\mathbb R^p) = \infty$ ).
The proof is by contradiction: suppose $\limsup \nu_n(A) < \infty$ andworth noting that we can define $$m_n(B):= \int_{B} |x|^2 \nu_n(dx)< \infty\quad\hbox{ and }\quad m(B):= \int_{B} |x|^2 \nu(dx)< \infty$$ for all borelian $\nu(A)< \infty$$B$. Taking theSince $\limsup$ in$E[S_n]=0$, we have $$\int_{\mathbb R^p} \frac{x}{|x|^2} m_n(dx)=0$$ and (\ref{IIq1}) and usingis equivalent to: $$\int_{\mathbb R^p} \frac{x}{|x|^2} m(dx)$$ I would venture to say that this is true due to (\ref{MIui}), we have: \begin{equation} \infty = \limsup \nu_n(A) + \nu(A^c) \end{equation} Since $\nu(A^c)< \infty$ (by the definition of a Levy measure) we have a contradictionusing an argument similar to uniform integrability.
If this is correctSorry if I contextualized the issue too much, it would remainbut I needed to analyze under what hypotheses we have $\nu(A)<\infty$?
Do you have any ideas?
Some facts that may be useful
- For $A= [-a,a]^p = [-a,a] \times \cdots \times [-a,a]$, with $a >0$, we have that \begin{align*} \nu_{jn}(A) &= \mathbb{P}(|\theta_{jn}\varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}|\leq a, |\theta_{(j+ t_2 - t_1)n }\varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}|\leq a , \ldots, |\theta_{(j+ t_p - t_1)n }\varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}|\leq a) \\ &=\mathbb{P}\bigg(|\varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}|\leq \frac{a}{\max(|\theta_{jn}|, |\theta_{(j+ t_2 - t_1)n }| \ldots,|\theta_{(j+ t_p - t_1)n }|)}\bigg)\\ &\overset{(**)}{=}\mathbb{P}\bigg(|\varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}|\leq \frac{a}{|\theta_{jn}|}\bigg). \end{align*} $(**)$ If we assume that $(\theta_{jn})_{j=0}^{\infty}$ is decreasing in $j$.
$\quad\,\,\,$Note that $\nu_{jn}(A)$ depends onavoid counterexamples like this $t_1, t_2,\dotsc, t_p$answer. Moreover \begin{equation}\label{N}\tag{N} \nu_n(A)= \sum_{j=0}^n \mathbb{P}\bigg(|\varepsilon_{t_1-j;n}|\leq \frac{a}{\max(|\theta_{jn}|, |\theta_{(j+ t_2 - t_1)n }| \ldots,|\theta_{(j+ t_p - t_1)n }|)}\bigg) \end{equation}In this same question, we can also find more technical details about the context given here.
- It is possible to show that if $\nu(\mathbb R^p)=\infty$, then the law of $X$ is difusse (non-atomic). See Proposition 7.16 from Foundations of Modern Probability, by Olav Kallenberg: