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Nov 13, 2010 at 2:59 comment added Martin Argerami If $\mathcal{A}$ has the same unit as $\mathcal{G}$, then yes.
Nov 11, 2010 at 2:19 comment added kett so you are saying the fact that $\mathcal{A} \cong \mathbb{M}_d$ is a subalgebra of $\mathcal{G}$ implies $d$ must divide $n$?
Nov 10, 2010 at 14:10 vote accept kett
Nov 10, 2010 at 14:10
Nov 10, 2010 at 9:38 history answered Bugs Bunny CC BY-SA 2.5